Paul says death reigned only until the Mosaic law, Jesus’ death inconsequential

PAUL'S EPISTLE TO THE ROMANS

Romans 5:14, "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression."

Other copies have the contrary: "Who had sinned after the similitude," etc.

If death reigned to the days of Moses only, how is the question to be explained: How could Jesus be considered the Savior of mankind, if the dominion of death had been made to cease through the laws of Moses, [Leviticus 18:5] "which, if a man performeth, he liveth in them?" See the question fully discussed in chapter one of the First Part of this work.

 
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